A new report indicates that two top NFC teams are likely out as potential landing spots for New York Giants star running back Saquon Barkley in free agency.
According to a report from ESPN’s Jordan Raanan, both the Dallas Cowboys and Philadelphia Eagles appear unlikely to sign the two-time Pro Bowler when the free agent market opens. Raanan explained that both clubs “aren’t expected to reach” the asking price:
“The rival Philadelphia Eagles and Dallas Cowboys have interest, but aren’t expected to reach Barkley’s price point.”
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Though Raanan noted that those two teams shouldn’t be entirely ruled out, it’s tough to envision both Dallas and Philadelphia as legitimate contenders for Barkley.
Dallas, of course, wasn’t willing to pay two-time 1,000-yard rusher Tony Pollard ahead of 2024 free agency, and Barkley will most certainly cost a lot more. The Eagles also have limited cap room and have to prioritize the front seven, secondary and especially the o-line following Jason Kelce’s retirement.
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Last season, the 27-year-old Barkley rushed for 962 yards and six touchdowns.
