Dallas Cowboys running back Ezekiel Elliott is likely to be released in the near future, per multiple reports, and another NFC team will reportedly be interested.
On Wednesday, Clarence Hill Jr. of the Fort Worth Star-Telegram reported that the Cowboys will be moving on from the two-time rushing champion. ESPN’s Adam Schefter subsequently confirmed this report.
Following Hill Jr.’s report, Rick Stroud of the Tampa Bay Times reported that the Tampa Bay Buccaneers will have interest in Elliott’s services:
“The Bucs are expected to be interested.
Former Cowboys coach Skip Peete is now coaching that position for Tampa Bay and has an opening for a veteran running back after the team officially releases Leonard Fournette later today.
In fact, in discussions with the agents for other free-agent running backs, the Bucs expressed their interest in Elliott if he were to be released.”
The Cowboys placed the franchise tag on Tony Pollard, who led the team in rushing with 1,007 yards. It was clear that owner Jerry Jones hoped to find a way to retain both his workhorse running backs, but at the end of the day, the dollars to keep Pollard and Elliott were never going to make sense.
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It’s no surprise that the Bucs apparently have interested in Elliott. They had football’s worst rushing attack last season, and the lack of balance led to a frustrating year for Tom Brady and company.
The Bucs finished with a disappointing 8-9 record which was still somehow enough to win the NFC South. However, Tampa was soundly defeated by Elliott’s Cowboys 31-14 on Super Wild Card Weekend.
Though Elliott’s production has declined since he signed that lucrative six-year, $90 million contract in 2019, he remains a consistent 1,000-yard threat. 2022 was a “down” year for Elliott, but he still had 876 rushing yards and 12 touchdowns. And of course, he’s still one of the NFL’s premier blockers at the RB position.
